A 64-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and nocturia. Digital rectal examination reveals a firm nodule on the prostate. His PSA level is 12 ng/mL. A prostate biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7 (3+4). What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

A 72-year-old man was diagnosed 9 years ago with prostate cancer. After radiation treatment, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level dropped to a nadir of 1.5 ng/mL; it had remained stable until it rose to 2 ng/mL 1 year ago and is currently 3.2 ng/mL. He has no symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old man undergoes a routine screening with a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test, which returns elevated at 8 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL). Digital rectal examination (DRE) is normal. His urologist recommends further evaluation due to the elevated PSA. The patient has no urinary symptoms or family history of prostate cancer. What is the next best step in the diagnostic workup for this patient?

A 55-year-old male with no significant medical history presents for a routine check-up. He has no urinary symptoms but is concerned about prostate cancer because his father was diagnosed with it at age 60. He asks about screening options. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial screening test for prostate cancer in this patient?

A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of frequent urination, weak urine stream, and nocturia (waking up at night to urinate) for the past six months. He has no family history of cancer but is concerned because a friend was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer. His physical exam reveals a firm, nodular prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE). What is the most significant risk factor for developing prostate cancer in this patient?

A 62-year-old African American male presents with a PSA level of 6.5 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL). He has a history of hypertension and obesity. His brother was diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 58. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer in this patient?

A 65-year-old African American man presents for a routine check-up. He has no urinary symptoms but mentions that his father was diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 70. Considering his risk factors, what is the most appropriate recommendation regarding prostate cancer screening?

A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after being struck in the face with a baseball. He complains of double vision and an inability to look upward with his right eye. Clinical examination reveals restricted upward gaze (supraduction) of the right eye, suggestive of an orbital blow-out fracture with entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle. Based on this case, what is the primary function of the inferior rectus muscle that is disrupted due to its entrapment, leading to the patient’s inability to supraduct the eye?

A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department after being struck in the face with a baseball. He reports double vision when looking upward. Physical examination reveals periorbital ecchymosis, infraorbital numbness, and restricted upward gaze in the affected eye. A CT scan confirms an orbital blow-out fracture. Which of the following best explains the patient’s inability to look upward?

A 32-year-old female welder presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her right eye after a workplace incident. She reports that while grinding metal, she felt a sharp sensation in her eye followed by immediate pain and blurred vision. She denies any prior ocular history. On examination, her vision in the affected eye is 20/200. The pupil appears irregular and slightly teardrop-shaped. A 2 mm by 3 mm laceration is visible on the cornea, extending partially onto the sclera, with clear fluid seeping from the wound. A CT scan of the orbit shows no obvious intraocular foreign body. What is the most appropriate next step in management?