A 28-year-old woman presents with a painless ganglion cyst on the dorsal wrist. She reports mild discomfort during wrist flexion but no significant limitations in daily activities. She is concerned about its appearance but is unsure if she wants surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

A 40-year-old female presents with a recurrent ganglion cyst on the dorsal wrist. She underwent aspiration 6 months ago, but the cyst has returned. She now reports pain and limited wrist mobility. Pain is often so severe she is not able to sleep. She works as a physician assistant and the cyst interferes with her work. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A pregnant woman at 28 weeks of gestation presents for routine prenatal care. She is Rh-negative, and her antibody screen is negative for anti-D antibodies. What is the most appropriate management to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis in this pregnancy?

A 3-day-old newborn presents with severe jaundice, lethargy, and signs of kernicterus. The baby’s mother is Rh-negative, and the baby is Rh-positive. Laboratory results show anemia, elevated bilirubin, and a positive Direct Coombs test. What is the best immediate treatment to prevent further bilirubin-related neurotoxicity?

A 28-year-old Rh-negative mother presents with her 2-day-old newborn male who has developed severe jaundice within 24 hours of birth. The pregnancy was uncomplicated until the mother missed her 28-week RhoGAM injection. This is her second pregnancy, and her first child, also Rh-positive, was born without complications but did not receive postpartum Rh immunoprophylaxis. There is no history of maternal illness during pregnancy or any other known medical conditions. Birth History: • Full-term vaginal delivery • APGAR scores: 7 at 1 minute, 9 at 5 minutes • Birth weight: 3.2 kg (normal) Clinical Examination: • General: Lethargic, irritable, and poor suck reflex • Skin: Generalized jaundice extending to the palms and soles • Abdomen: Hepatosplenomegaly • Neurological: Mild hypotonia, decreased Moro reflex Initial Investigations: • Bilirubin: Total = 18 mg/dL (severe hyperbilirubinemia) • Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL (anemia) • Reticulocyte count: Elevated • Peripheral smear: Nucleated RBCs (erythroblasts) • Direct Coombs test: Positive for anti-D antibodies • Maternal Rh status: Rh-negative • Fetal Rh status: Rh-positive What is the most likely underlying mechanism of the newborn’s condition?

A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for elective surgery. She receives a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion intraoperatively. Within minutes of the transfusion, she develops fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, and hemoglobinuria (dark urine). The transfusion is immediately stopped. Laboratory testing reveals hemolysis, and a direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test) is positive. Question: What is the most likely cause of this patient’s transfusion reaction?

A patient with known type B blood is accidentally given type A blood during a transfusion. The patient develops hemolytic anemia. In this case, which antibody is primarily responsible for the positive direct Coombs test?

A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and develops jaundice and dark urine 2 weeks later. Laboratory tests reveal normocytic anemia, elevated indirect bilirubin, and elevated LDH. A Direct Coombs test is positive for complement (C3) but negative for IgG. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s hemolysis?

A 3-day-old newborn presents with jaundice and anemia. The baby was born to an Rh-negative mother and an Rh-positive father. Laboratory evaluation reveals elevated bilirubin and a positive Direct Coombs test. What is the most likely cause of the newborn’s condition?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fatigue, shortness of breath, and jaundice. Laboratory results show severe anemia (hemoglobin 6.5 g/dL), elevated indirect bilirubin, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Her peripheral blood smear shows spherocytes and polychromatic red cells. A direct Coombs test is positive for IgG. What is the most likely diagnosis?