A 24 year-old woman G2P1, with one prior healthy vaginal delivery and no significant medical conditions presents to the emergency department with complaints of abnormal vaginal bleeding and severe nausea and vomiting at 10 weeks of gestation. She describes her bleeding as intermittent but heavy at times and notes that her nausea is much worse than in her first pregnancy. On examination, her uterus is larger than expected for 10 weeks gestation. She denies abdominal pain or fever. There are no signs of hemodynamic instability. Laboratory tests are ordered. Beta-hCG is markedly elevated at 150,000 IU/L, significantly higher than expected for her gestational age. The ultrasound reveals a “snowstorm” pattern consistent with a complete molar pregnancy. She is diagnosed with a complete molar pregnancy. After counseling, she undergoes suction curettage to evacuate the uterus. What is the most important follow-up measure after evacuation of a complete molar pregnancy?
