A 40-year-old man with known Crohn’s disease presents with a 2-week history of worsening diarrhea, fatigue, and abdominal pain. He reports no blood in his stool but complains of low-grade fever and joint pain. On examination, there is mild right lower quadrant tenderness and perianal skin tags. Lab tests show leukocytosis, hypoalbuminemia, and elevated CRP. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient’s flare?
