A 62-year-old man with obesity, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and dyslipidemia stopped taking atorvastatin a few months ago due to muscle discomfort, night cramps, and tendon soreness. His symptoms resolved after discontinuing atorvastatin. After discussing statin-associated musculoskeletal syndrome (SAMS), he expresses a desire to restart atorvastatin at a tolerated dose. He has also made dietary changes to reduce lipid intake. What is the next step in managing his hypercholesterolemia?
Which of the following is an appropriate intervention to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk in older adults with diabetes?
Which of the following is a component of long-term risk reduction in patients with unstable angina (UA) and non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)?
What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for elevated LDL cholesterol in most individuals who are not pregnant or breastfeeding?
A 65-year-old man presents to your primary care office with pain in his right lower leg and is concerned about a possible blood clot. On examination, there is tenderness with palpation over the left calf muscles. His medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and depression. Current medications are lisinopril, clonidine, rosuvastatin, sertraline, and aspirin. Before proceeding with investigations for a possible clot, you consider whether any of his medications might be contributing to his leg pain. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
