A 55-year-old man with a 12-month history of stable penile curvature (45 degrees) and no pain presents for evaluation. He is concerned about the curvature affecting his sexual function and inquires about treatment options. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A 48-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of penile pain during erection and a newly noticed curvature. He is anxious about the progression of his symptoms and seeks advice on management. Which of the following best characterizes the acute phase of Peyronie disease?
A 52-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of penile curvature during erection, making sexual intercourse difficult. He also reports mild pain during erection and palpates a firm plaque on the dorsal aspect of his penis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosing Peyronie disease?
A 48-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of painful erections and a noticeable downward bend in his penis. He denies trauma but mentions the symptoms began after vigorous sexual activity. On exam, a tender plaque is felt on the ventral penile shaft. He is distressed about the condition and seeks treatment to halt progression. Which of the following treatments is most likely to reduce plaque size and improve curvature in the active phase of this condition?
A 60-year-old man visits his primary care physician reporting a 45-degree lateral curvature of his penis during erections, which began 8 months ago. He initially experienced mild pain that has since resolved, but the curvature persists and occasionally interferes with sexual activity. He has a history of hypertension and smoking but no recent trauma. Examination reveals a hard, palpable plaque on the left lateral penile shaft. Question:What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient’s condition?
A 47-year-old man presents with progressive penile curvature over the past year, making sexual intercourse difficult. He reports no history of trauma but notes occasional painful erections. Examination reveals a firm, non-tender plaque on the dorsal penile shaft. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of this condition?
A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about penile curvature and pain during erections that started six months ago. He denies any trauma or history of sexually transmitted infections. On examination, a palpable, non-tender plaque is noted along the dorsal shaft of the penis. There is no evidence of penile ulcers or discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 67-year-old man with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and seasonal allergies presents to the emergency department with acute urinary retention. He reports difficulty urinating, lower abdominal discomfort, and a weak urinary stream for the past 12 hours. He recently started taking an over-the-counter decongestant for nasal congestion. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of his urinary retention?
A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with progressive urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and nocturia over the past year. He denies dysuria, hematuria, or fever. Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth, symmetrically enlarged prostate without nodules. Post-void residual volume is mildly elevated. The patient is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and would like to start medical treatment. Which of the following is the preferred initial pharmacotherapy for most patients with symptomatic BPH?
A 35-year-old male with oligozoospermia (low sperm count) undergoes genetic testing, which reveals a partial AZFc deletion. His wife is considering in vitro fertilization (IVF) with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI). The couple asks about the genetic implications for their potential male offspring. Which of the following is the most appropriate counseling point?
